As a historian, this is just an opinion: Maybe Lord Macaulay introduced English in India with some foresight that English would become a global language.
Think about it. He introduced English in India somewhere between 1835 and 1840. What was the position of Britain at the time? It had more or less the whole world at its feet. And Britain’s official language was English. Naturally, English would be dominant at this time. There was no way Britain would lose hold of these territories in the near future; its power was too great.
Am I supporting Lord Macaulay? No. I’m merely looking at the issue with a neutral mindset. Macaulay could’ve encouraged the Indian languages, alongside English, but let’s face it: he was loyal mostly to the British people.
So yea, not an entirely negative action, eh?
Please comment below your opinions; but let’s make this a constructive discussion, eh?